CC Rider - MI 0 Report post Posted September 15, 2004 To any of our brokers out there - How do lenders evaluate an unmarried couple who want to buy a place together? If they are both willing to sign for the loan, does the lender do the exact same calculations as if they are married? Do they look at a reduced percentage of their gross income (say 75% of their combined) in determining a maximum loan amount? I have encountered some couples, as well as divorced mother with grown child, who want to be buyers, but I don't want to place them in a home a lender won't qualify them for. Any help would be appreciated. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
lacashman 0 Report post Posted September 16, 2004 Its done the same way. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Guest Matt Report post Posted September 30, 2004 First of all, will they both (or either) be occupying the property? If the loan is to be an owner-occupied, and both will be occupying, most lenders will be ok with it. Some (especially on the more subprime side) may require some history showing that they've lived together for some length of time. (This is because if they do not allow non-occupant co-borrowers, they want to make sure someone else isn't just co-signing to qualify for the loan and will never actually occupy the property). It will likely come down to the individual lender, but there are enough out there that I wouldn't think you'd have a problem. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
