JCannon 0 Report post Posted November 8, 2004 If I were to send a contract via fax to be signed, the seller signs it, and then sends it back to me to sign, would it be a legal and binding contract? The seller's contract would be a copy of course and mine an original. It doesn't seem so, but it would cut out some significant drive time on some possible deals I have in the works. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Adam King (MI) 1 Report post Posted November 8, 2004 J,I have done several deals (LO/CA) without ever even meeting the seller before putting the house under contract. The fax is a great way to go. Email is even better because (Like most faxes) you can show/save proof of delivery and its contents.Check your state laws, you sometimes may be better off by putting something in the agreement that shows that copies are just as binding as originals. (Power of attorney etc)Also, the only time we ever truly need originals in this business, is when we are transferring title in some way. Title companies ALWAYS want originals so there's no doubt that a conveyance is true.Hope that helps,Adam Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
JCannon 0 Report post Posted November 8, 2004 It sure does, thanks. That may save me a whole bunch of time and some expensive gas. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites